How will "popular consensus" be determined?

<>50% (and I guess exactly 50% is N/A)

@Slackhammer so market resolves based on it's own percentage (whalebait)?

Yes, because all chemistry is fundamentally quantum...

I take this to mean ‘beyond the extent to which anything is quantum’. I.e. does knowledge of quantum mechanics provide better insight/explanatory power compared to analysis based on electrochemical signaling. Sort of like how everything can be described as a wave function but it is not necessary to determine the arc & velocity of a baseball traveling into a catchers glove.

The "any way" is doing a lot of heavy lifting here, but I don't think you can explain chromophores without quantum effects (fixed energy levels of electrons). Since psychedelics alter visual perception, they relate to chromophores and hence quantum effects...

I know this is not what the question is intended to be about, but to mek the question make sense you need to define some boundary where a thing starts to count as a "quantum effect" and some minimal restriction on what counts as related. The question didn't do that and so the resolution will likely be purely interpretation-dependent.

In retrospect, I think I got caught up in the paradigm of the Penrose theorem, which has tickled my fancy since a friend first told me about it, years ago. Perhaps the wording is too general.